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Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations? (Read 525 times)
Eegore
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #75 - 03/13/19 at 20:21:14
 
"and yet they pay taxes, sales tax and property tax and gas tax and this and that tax....  just LIKE YOU"

 What about people who aren't doing this?

 People living illegally, not paying taxes except for sales tax when they buy something with money they acquired without paying income tax as they are undocumented?  

 
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LostArtist
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #76 - 03/14/19 at 07:03:00
 
Eegore wrote on 03/13/19 at 20:21:14:
"and yet they pay taxes, sales tax and property tax and gas tax and this and that tax....  just LIKE YOU"

 What about people who aren't doing this?

 People living illegally, not paying taxes except for sales tax when they buy something with money they acquired without paying income tax as they are undocumented?  

 


I DON"T DO THAT. there's NO income tax in Texas. I do pay federal income taxes though, so that's a bit of a difference I guess.  And I know that there are citizens that work under the table. What about them?  and some non-citizens do pay payroll taxes for SS and Medicare that they don't qualify for.   And there are several citizens that don't pay income tax, spouses that don't work, 18 - 26 year olds that live at home and don't work enough to pay income taxes, poor Americans that don't make enough to pay income tax....
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Eegore
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #77 - 03/14/19 at 16:11:18
 
 
 So do illegal immigrants living in the US in taxable areas, where income, State, City or Federal taxes exist, that pay none of those taxes, should they be allowed to influence public process by voting?

 To clarify:  State "or" Federal "or" City is meant to convey that one, both, or either may exist in any combination.  

 "Illegal Immigrants" is meant to convey individuals of any age that have moved into the geographical location governed by US statute, City State or Federal, and now claim residence in one of those areas.

"And I know that there are citizens that work under the table. What about them?"

 That's not in question.  They as "LEGAL" US citizens can vote, if they are registered to do so.

 I am trying to ask a question specific to the definitions above as it is already law that "Legal" US citizens of legal age can vote.  So that's not in question, that is already established.  Homeless, non-tax paying "LEGAL" US citizens are already legally allowed to vote - given they register.

 But "ILLEGAL" immigrants, that are not "LEGAL" US Citizens are in question.  That is my question, what about them?  Should non-tax paying individuals be able to vote just by saying "I live here today"?
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LostArtist
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #78 - 03/14/19 at 16:36:11
 
Eegore wrote on 03/14/19 at 16:11:18:
 
 So do illegal immigrants living in the US in taxable areas, where income, State, City or Federal taxes exist, that pay none of those taxes, should they be allowed to influence public process by voting?

I don't believe that, how do they pay none of those taxes?  do they never buy anything (in America????)??  no, they pay sales tax at the least.. oh, maybe an illegal spouse or child....  maybe, but then that's true of legal spouses and children that don't pay..  so the only thing separating them is an accident of their birthplace...  


 To clarify:  State "or" Federal "or" City is meant to convey that one, both, or either may exist in any combination.  

yes, there are multiple ways taxes are configured throughout the U.S.


 "Illegal Immigrants" is meant to convey individuals of any age that have moved into the geographical location governed by US statute, City State or Federal, and now claim residence in one of those areas.

"And I know that there are citizens that work under the table. What about them?"

 That's not in question.  They as "LEGAL" US citizens can vote, if they are registered to do so.


why isn't that in question?

but why? if you say this "  So do illegal immigrants living in the US in taxable areas, where income, State, City or Federal taxes exist, that pay none of those taxes, should they be allowed to influence public process by voting?"  how do you justify citizens that don't pay any taxes voting?  only that they happen to live in an area and were born there by NO CHOICE OF THIER OWN?  how is that any more justified than mere residency?


I am trying to ask a question specific to the definitions above as it is already law that "Legal" US citizens of legal age can vote.  So that's not in question, that is already established.  Homeless, non-tax paying "LEGAL" US citizens are already legally allowed to vote - given they register.



but those homeless fit my definition of having residency.  

my point to all this is, citizenship is arbitrary, a mere accident of birthplace. So why are you all so die hard on making that the end all be all about who gets to vote and contribute to the governance of an area?  

every other quality you are fine with, but an accident of birthplace... that's what you're hanging your governance on?

oh, and yeah, they broke the law.. it's a MISDEMEANOR

"The illegal entry of non-nationals into the United States is a misdemeanor according to the Immigration and Nationality Act of 1965, which prohibits non-nationals from entering or attempting to enter the United States at any time or place which has not been designated by an immigration officer, and also prohibits non-....

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Illegal_entry

people with misdemeanors can vote...  




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LostArtist
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #79 - 03/14/19 at 16:40:58
 
Eegore wrote on 03/14/19 at 16:11:18:
 
 So do illegal immigrants living in the US in taxable areas, where income, State, City or Federal taxes exist, that pay none of those taxes, should they be allowed to influence public process by voting?

 To clarify:  State "or" Federal "or" City is meant to convey that one, both, or either may exist in any combination.  

 "Illegal Immigrants" is meant to convey individuals of any age that have moved into the geographical location governed by US statute, City State or Federal, and now claim residence in one of those areas.

"And I know that there are citizens that work under the table. What about them?"

 That's not in question.  They as "LEGAL" US citizens can vote, if they are registered to do so.

 I am trying to ask a question specific to the definitions above as it is already law that "Legal" US citizens of legal age can vote.  So that's not in question, that is already established.  Homeless, non-tax paying "LEGAL" US citizens are already legally allowed to vote - given they register.

 But "ILLEGAL" immigrants, that are not "LEGAL" US Citizens are in question.  That is my question, what about them?  Should non-tax paying individuals be able to vote just by saying "I live here today"?


I see you changed that.....  

this "I live here today"  isn't what I'm saying, I keep using this word RESIDENCY, there's a reason I use it.  

it's not a place you are visiting for a day, a week, 2 years....., it's a place you've decided to make your long term home...  



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Eegore
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #80 - 03/14/19 at 21:05:19
 
" don't believe that, how do they pay none of those taxes? "

 I already addressed this and you responded to it:

"People living illegally, not paying taxes except for sales tax when they buy something with money they acquired without paying income tax as they are undocumented?"

 To clarify:

 Sales tax is meant to convey taxes, State, City, Private or Federal that is imposed as a percentage of the purchase of goods.  "Except sales tax" is meant to convey undocumented immigrants contribute to sales tax but not to other taxes.

 So I will roll with the "accident of birthplace" as I refer to it as "Birthplace Lottery".  

 The question I have is more specifically directed towards your statement here:

 "no, you'd have to prove residency via documentation, just like I had to in order to vote in Texas for Texas state and local things."

 This makes sense.  The issue is that I am referring to what is literally called "Undocumented Immigrant".  How does an "Undocumented" or what I have referred to as "Illegal" immigrant meet the standards of "residency via documentation" ?

 As far as I know we have a process for this.

 What the concern is, for me, is that people with no documentation can vote but without verification/registration.  

 Or in other words:

"it's not a place you are visiting for a day, a week, 2 years....., it's a place you've decided to make your long term home..."

 How would the voting booth know this if there's no documentation?

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LostArtist
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #81 - 03/15/19 at 00:05:30
 
Eegore wrote on 03/14/19 at 21:05:19:
" don't believe that, how do they pay none of those taxes? "

 I already addressed this and you responded to it:

"People living illegally, not paying taxes except for sales tax when they buy something with money they acquired without paying income tax as they are undocumented?"

 To clarify:

 Sales tax is meant to convey taxes, State, City, Private or Federal that is imposed as a percentage of the purchase of goods.  "Except sales tax" is meant to convey undocumented immigrants contribute to sales tax but not to other taxes.

okay.. but there are places where all of their financing IS SALES TAX. so they are JUST AS IMPORTANT as other kinds of taxation


 So I will roll with the "accident of birthplace" as I refer to it as "Birthplace Lottery".  

 The question I have is more specifically directed towards your statement here:

 "no, you'd have to prove residency via documentation, just like I had to in order to vote in Texas for Texas state and local things."

 This makes sense.  The issue is that I am referring to what is literally called "Undocumented Immigrant".  How does an "Undocumented" or what I have referred to as "Illegal" immigrant meet the standards of "residency via documentation" ?


they pay bills, rent, utilities, etc...  I had to provide a utility bill that was like 6 months old or something the first time I voted in Texas, and every time I go to vote, they ask "Is this still your place of residency?" you know, under the threat of perjury.

 As far as I know we have a process for this.

 What the concern is, for me, is that people with no documentation can vote but without verification/registration.  

 Or in other words:

"it's not a place you are visiting for a day, a week, 2 years....., it's a place you've decided to make your long term home..."

 How would the voting booth know this if there's no documentation?

 


again, there are other ways to prove your residency than your citizenship, I had to prove I was a TEXAN to vote in my local TEXAS election.  California provides driver's licences to illegals... Rent receipts, utility receipts.... there is plenty of legal documentation that illegals can have to prove a long term residency.


"Here is a list of the supporting forms of ID that can be presented if the voter does not possess one of the forms of acceptable photo ID and cannot reasonably obtain one:

copy or original of a government document that shows the voter’s name and an address, including the voter’s voter registration certificate;
copy of or original current utility bill;
copy of or original bank statement;
copy of or original government check;
copy of or original paycheck; or
copy of or original of (a) a certified domestic (from a U.S. state or territory) birth certificate or (b) a document confirming birth admissible in a court of law which establishes the voter’s identity (which may include a foreign birth document).
After presenting one of the forms of supporting ID listed above, the voter must execute a Reasonable Impediment Declaration."


https://www.votetexas.gov/register-to-vote/need-id.html

also, I thought this was fairly obvious, but I'll spell it out for you, the citizenship question would be removed from voter registration forms so you'd have that too....

so, yes, there would be some changes as to what is accepted under law, some laws would have to change possibly..... but to embrace a truer, more inclusive and accurate form of democracy,

"We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity....."

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LostArtist
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #82 - 03/15/19 at 00:21:30
 
Amendment 15 1. The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude.

Amendment 19 The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex.

Amendment 24 1. The right of citizens of the United States to vote in any primary or other election for President or Vice President, for electors for President or Vice President, or for Senator or Representative in Congress, shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or any State by reason of failure to pay any poll tax or other tax.

(For a history of why the 24th Amendment only applies to federal elections, see here).

Amendment 26 1. The right of citizens of the United States, who are eighteen years of age or older, to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of age.

Notice how they all say, the right of citizens shall not be abridged or denied or something to that effect....  not that the PRIVILEGE as some have stated here.... or that aliens don't or can't have that right.....  


“Alien suffrage was quite common during the nineteenth century, coming to a peak in 1875 when twenty-two states and territories granted aliens the right to vote.”237 That ended in the 1920s, at which point all states required citizenship as a condition to voter eligibility.238 Today, every state prohibits noncitizens from voting in federal elections.239 Federal law, too, prohibits aliens from voting in federal elections.240 (federal law... not the constitution... just as a point) There are, however, jurisdictions that allow,241 or seek to allow,242 noncitizens to vote in local elections. And as resident aliens have a significant interest in the locales where they reside, and are subject to other political obligations like taxation, there have been particularly strong arguments in favor of extending suffrage to at least a set of them.243"


http://joshblackman.com/blog/2013/05/09/does-the-u-s-constitution-allow-non-c...
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LostArtist
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #83 - 03/15/19 at 00:29:43
 
and listen, this is all just a thought experiment on democracy....   which I know we don't live in anyway, we live in a representational republic, but representational is becoming more and more a joke, We the People is being replaced by We the Corporate donors...  so a way to counter the ever decreasing effect voting actually has on our representatives, maybe we can try expanding our idea of democracy..

it's sad that so many think that their vote matter so little that they don't bother to vote anyway...
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Matchless G11
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #84 - 03/15/19 at 04:14:27
 
Socialism ends up poorly. I think the better solution to slow or end big corporate donors is to uses the monopoly laws to break up big companies so they don't have so much power.
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #85 - 03/15/19 at 06:55:29
 
"okay.. but there are places where all of their financing IS SALES TAX. so they are JUST AS IMPORTANT as other kinds of taxation"

 I never said any form of taxation is more or less valuable as they all hold a 1 to 1 ratio of income per USD monetary unit collected.

 To clarify:

"People living illegally, not paying taxes except for sales tax, a taxation upon goods utilized in some cases as an exclusive form of taxable income and as such is interpreted here as an equally valuable taxation type as any and all other legally imposed taxes, when they buy something with money they acquired without paying income tax as they are undocumented?


"Notice how they all say, the right of citizens shall not be abridged or denied or something to that effect.... "

 The right of citizens.

 Illegal immigrants are not citizens.  Thus the term citizenship test.

 Are you indicating that if someone pays a utility bill for six months in a geographical location governed by the US that they are now a citizen?

 Or are they a "resident"?

 It seems to me an amendment saying it applies to citizens doesnt apply to non-citizens.  When we took British prisoners that lived here, they were indeed residents, but not citizens.  Should the right to vote have been extended to them?  

 To clarify I am attempting to define things so we stop prolonging the conversation around semantics.
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LostArtist
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #86 - 03/15/19 at 08:05:36
 
Matchless G11 wrote on 03/15/19 at 04:14:27:
Socialism ends up poorly. I think the better solution to slow or end big corporate donors is to uses the monopoly laws to break up big companies so they don't have so much power.


an excellent idea...  but not a trending one, more and more companies are being allowed to buy each other and consolidate power...
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LostArtist
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #87 - 03/15/19 at 08:35:20
 
The only point I"m making on this idea, is that citizenship is arbitrary, so why are we clinging to that as the end all be all factor to determining who votes?  

don't people who live in an area have a voice and responsibility to contribute to the governing of that area? isn't that the core idea behind democracy?

and

There is no longer a point in replying to this thread. Eegore apparently can't read and is being difficult so I refuse to engage in any more conversation about this with him, as everything he's asking has been explained in previous posts.
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WebsterMark
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #88 - 03/15/19 at 08:36:27
 
Socialism ends up poorly. I think the better solution to slow or end big corporate donors is to uses the monopoly laws to break up big companies so they don't have so much power.

I can get behind that idea to a point. For example, I believe I read InBev has 30%+ share of the US beer market. At what point does that become a problem? Not sure.
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Matchless G11
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Re: Socialism.... Why 2 different interpretations?
Reply #89 - 03/15/19 at 10:37:57
 
Mark, in a way you hit the nail on the head with beer.

microbrews!

Now if we can get others to make items for sale, small business, farmer markets, shop locally, go to mom and pop places.  

There is hope.
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